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Which of the following disease is transmitted by phlebotomus argentipes -
[ "Epidemic typhus", "Kala-azar", "Relapsing fever", "Trench fever" ]
B
Kala-azar by Sandfly Trypanosomiasis African - Tsetse fly American (Chagas) - Triatomine bug Park's Textbook of Preventive and Social Medicine, 25th Edition, Pg 836
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A dead born fetus does not have
[ "Rigor mortis at birth", "Adipocere formation", "Maceration", "Mummification" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e. Adipocere formation All the four can be seen in a dead bom fetus but adipocere formation being rare should be the answer."A dead born child is one which has died in utero and may show signs of rigor mortis, maceration or mummification *"Rarely a child which has remained surrounded in amniotic fluid aft...
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Dalen Fuch's nodules are seen in:
[ "Sympathetic ophthalmia", "Phthisis bulbi", "Absolute glaucoma", "Pseudo xanthoma elasticum" ]
A
Sympathetic ophthalmia
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What are telomerases which plays a role in DNA replication?
[ "DNA dependent DNA polymerase", "RNA dependent DNA polymerase", "DNA dependent RNA polymerase", "RNA dependent RNA polymerase" ]
B
Telomerase is a RNA dependent DNA polymerase that is expressed in stem cells and most cancer cells, but not in somatic cells. Using an RNA template, telomerase adds GT-rich hexanucleotide repeat sequences ranging from a few hundred (yeast) to several thousand (humans) nucleotides in length to the ends of linear DNA mol...
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The most common site of metastasis from the mandibular sarcoma is
[ "Lung", "Liver", "Spleen", "Heart" ]
A
null
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Prevention or treatment of osteoporosis in post- menopausal women may be acheived by all EXCEPT
[ "Estrogen and progesterne hormone replacement therapy", "Calcium and vitamin D supplementation", "Bisphosphonates", "Multivitamins" ]
D
Multivitamins do not play any role in treatment of osteoporosis. Vitamin D is the essential vitamin. (REF.Essential of medical pharmacology K D TRIPATHI 6 Edition, Page No - 330)
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Transamination of pyruvate with glutamate leads to:
[ "Oxaloacetate and aspartate", "Alanine and aspartate", "Oxaloacetate and alpha ketoglutarate", "Alanine and alpha ketoglutarate" ]
D
Transamination, a chemical reaction that transfers an amino group to a ketoacid to form new amino acids. This pathway is responsible for the deamination of most amino acids.
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What is the mechanism by which catecholamines stabilize blood glucose concentration in response to hypoglycemia?
[ "Catecholamines stimulate glycogen phosphorylase to release glucose from muscle", "Catecholamines inhibit glycogenolysis in the liver", "Catecholamines stimulate the release of insulin from the pancreas", "Catecholamines stimulate gluconeogenesis in the liver" ]
D
Catecholamines stimulate glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver, causing glucose to be synthesized and released into the blood.Catecholamines stimulate glycogen phosphorylase in muscle to free glucose for use by the muscle. Muscle cannot release glucose into the circulation because it lacks glucose-6-phosphata...
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Sequestration lung is best diagnosed by-
[ "CT. scan", "M.R.I.", "Barium swallow", "Angiography" ]
D
A pulmonary sequestration (bronchopulmonary sequestration)is a medical condition wherein a piece of tissue that ultimately develops into lung tissue is not attached to the pulmonary aerial blood supply.An angiogram/aeriogram has been considered vital in documenting the systemic blood supply,allowing definitive diagnosi...
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Which of the following is enzyme inducer?
[ "Erythromycin", "Isoniazid", "Rifampicin", "Cimetidine" ]
C
Ans. C. RifampicinDugs which act as enzyme inducera. G- Griseofulvinb. P- phenytoinc. R-Rifampicind. S-smokinge. Cell- carbamazepinef. Phone- phenobarbitone.
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Hyoid bone is a derivative of
[ "First pharyngeal arch", "First and second pharyngeal arches", "Second and third pharyngeal arches", "Fourth pharyngeal arch" ]
C
null
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An old man presented with fever and abdominal pain. Diveiculitis is suspected. If it is Meckel's diveiculum is involved, it can be best diagnosed by:
[ "X-ray", "Ultrasound", "CT Scan", "Tc99 peechnetium scan" ]
D
Diagnosis of Meckel diveiculum is made with a Meckel scan. Technetium-99 (99mTc)-peechnetate is taken up by the heterotopic gastric mucosa in the diveiculum and outlines the diveiculum on a nuclear scan. Giving pentagastrin or cimetidine before administering the radionuclide increases 99mTc-peechnetate uptake and reten...
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A 60 year old man is suspected of having bronchogenic ca : TB has been ruled out in this pt.What should be the next investigation -
[ "CT guided FNAC", "Bronchoscopy and biopsy", "Sputum cytology", "X - Ray chest" ]
A
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The lesion characteristic of secondary syphilis –
[ "Ulcer", "Condyloma acumicata", "Condyloma lata", "Gtmima" ]
C
null
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Salivary amylase is inactivated by
[ "Enteropeptidase", "Low pH of stomach", "High pH of intestine", "None" ]
B
Salivary amylase is secreted by the salivary glands.The oral pH is about 7.0 and it is the optimum pH for the action of salivary amylase.The pH of stomach is about 1.2 and this inhibit the action of salivary amylase.(Ref: Ganong&;s Review of medical physiology)
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Complex sectioning (transverse) at mid pons level along with vagi results in
[ "Asphyxia", "Hyperventilation", "Rapid and shallow breathing", "Apneusis" ]
D
→ Section A: Cut at upper part of pons: (Decerebration): Normal rhythmic breathing continues. Loss of voluntary breath holding. If vagi are cut, increase in depth and slow breathing. → Section B: Cut at mid-pons: Apneustic center (Ap) intact but pneumotaxic centre separated. Ap stimulates Inspiratory (I) neurons, which...
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Burns involving skin superficial pa of dermis is categorized as
[ "First degree burns", "Superficial 2nd degree burn", "Deep 2nd degree burn", "Third degree burns" ]
B
First degree burns involve only epidermis Superficial second degree involve upper layer of dermis Deep second degree involves reticular layers of dermis Third degree involves all layers of skin Fouh degree burns involve not only skin but also subcutaneous fat and deeper structures
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Dexmedetomidine is a
[ "Centrally acting alpha 2 agonist", "Peripherally acting alpha2 agonist", "Centrally acting alpha 2 antagonist", "Peripherally acting alpha 2 antagonist" ]
A
Ref: KD Tripathi pharmacology 7th edition (page.no: 384) Dexmedetomidine is a centrally active a2A agonist It is introduced for sedating critically ill/ventilated patients in the intensive care unit. It is used as an adjunct to anaesthesia. Analgesia and sedation are produced with little respiratory depression, amnesia...
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In hemolytic anemia, all of the following are true except: March 2005
[ "Bone marrow hyperplasia", "Reticulocytosis", "Increased unconjugated bilirubin", "Increased haptoglobulin" ]
D
Ans. D: Increased haptoglobulin Hemolysis presents as acute or chronic anemia, reticulocytosis, or jaundice. The diagnosis is established by reticulocytosis, increased unconjugated bilirubin and lactate dehydrogenase, decreased haptoglobin, and peripheral blood smear findings. In most of the cases, a bone marrow aspira...
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Which of the following Intrauterine device has a minimum failure rate
[ "Progestase", "Cu T-380 A", "Levonorgestrel IUD", "T Cu -200" ]
C
Mirena (Levonorgestrel IUD) has least failure rate among IUD's Contraceptive implants (Implanon) have the least failure rates among all contraceptive methods. Ref : Park 23rd edition Pgno : 496
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The primordia of the craniofacial complex develops from
[ "Hensen's node", "Notochordal process", "Cloacal membrane", "Blastopore" ]
A
null
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All are true about pentose phosphate pathway, EXCEPT:
[ "CO2 is produced", "Oxidation utilises NADP", "No ATP is generated", "None of the above" ]
D
Although glucose 6-phosphate is common to both pathways, the pentose phosphate pathway is markedly different from glycolysis. Oxidation utilizes NADP rather than NAD, CO2, which is not produced in glycolysis, is a characteristic product No ATP is generated in the pentose phosphate pathway, whereas it is a major product...
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Which is the most common complication of pathological myopia?
[ "Glaucoma", "Cataract", "Haemorrhage", "Retinal detachment" ]
D
Ans. (d) Retinal detachmentMost common complication of myopia is macular degeneration, followed by rhegmatogenous retinal detachment."Retinal detachment is the most dreaded and one of the most common complications of myopia'. Duke -ElderMost common cause of rhegmatogenous retinal detachment is pathological myopia
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True about posttraumatic stress disorder -a) Recall of traumatic eventsb) Associated with major trauma like pelvic fracturec) Treatment is ECTd) Disturbed sleep
[ "b", "c", "ad", "ab" ]
C
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Congenital rubella syndrome is most prominent in an infant when a pregnant woman becomes infected?
[ "During the first trimester of pregnancy", "One week before a full-term delivery", "One month before a full-term delivery", "Hours before childbih" ]
A
The route of infection of rubella virus is the respiratory tract, with spread to lymphatic tissue and then to the blood (viremia). Maternal viremia is followed by infection of the placenta, which leads to congenital rubella. Many organs of the fetus suppo the multiplication of the virus, which does not seem to destroy ...
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Dentigerous cyst arises from-
[ "An unerupted tooth", "Apex of an infected tooth", "Nasopalatine cysts", "Solitary bone cyst" ]
A
null
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A 21-year-old woman experiences abruptio placentae with severe bleeding during the delivery of a term fetus. Five months later, she presents with profound lethargy, pallor, muscle weakness, failure of lactation and amenorrhea. Which of the following pathologic findings is expected in this patient?
[ "Atrophy of the endocrine pancreas", "Autoimmune destruction of the adrenal coex", "Infarction of the pituitary", "Pituitary prolactinoma" ]
C
- Given clinical features suggests the diagnosis of Sheehan syndrome. SHEEHAN SYNDROME - Caused d/t postpaum ischemic necrosis of anterior pituitary. - Occurs after severe hypotension induced by postpaum hemorrhage. - The pituitary is paicularly susceptible at this time because its enlargement during pregnancy renders ...
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Great saphenous vein canulation is done at-
[ "Ant to medial malleolus", "At fossa ovalis", "Above popliteal fossa", "None" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ant. to medial malleolus o Saphenous removes cut down at ankle provide excellent access. It is reliably found 1cm. anterior and 1 cm. superior to the medial malleolus. o Saphenous venous cut down at ankle provides excellent access. It is reliably found 1 cm. anterior and 1 cm. superior to the medial m...
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Bleomycin toxicity affects which organ predominantly:March 2011
[ "Bone marrow", "Lungs", "Liver", "RBC" ]
B
Ans. B: LungsToxicity of Bleomycin is nausea, vomiting, dermographia, scleroderma like changes in skin, pneumonitis and occasionally pulmonary fibrosis.It is rarely a myelosuppressnatBleomycinIt is a glycopeptide antibiotic produced by the bacterium Streptomyces veicillus.Bleomycin refers to a family of structurally re...
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Collagen affected in Osteogenesislmperfecta
[ "Type I", "Type II", "Type III", "Type IV" ]
A
Ans, is 'a' i.e., Type I o Osteogenesis imperfecta also known as brittle bone disease, or "Labstein syndrome" is a congenital bone disorder.o People with OI are bom with defective connective tissue, or without the ability to make it, usually because of a deficiency of Type-1 collagen.o This deficiency arises from an am...
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Grape - like, polypoid, bulky mass protruding through vagina in 4 - year old girl is characteristic of
[ "Fibrosarcoma", "Leiomyosarcoma", "Inflammatory polyp", "Sarcoma botryoides" ]
D
sarcoma botryoides : It is a variant of embryonal from of rhabdomyosarcoma. Here tumour project into body cavity like a bunch of grapes.
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Primordial prevention is for:
[ "Persons without risk factors", "Persons with risk factors", "Cure of disease", "Treatment of complications" ]
A
It is first prevention in its purest form i.e. prevention of emergence of development of risk factor in countries or population groups in which they have not yet appeared. Efforts taken to discourage children from adopting harmful habits. Primordial prevention is for persons without risk factors Main intervention is th...
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Laryngeal membranes are classified into extrinsic and intrinsic. Extrinsic membranes of larynx are all, EXCEPT:
[ "Cricothyroid membrane", "Thyrohyoid membrane", "Quadrangular membrane", "Cricotracheal membrane" ]
C
Extrinsic membranes of larynx:Thyrohyoid membraneCricothyroid membraneCricotracheal membraneIntrinsic membranes of larynx:Cricovocal membraneQuadrangular membrane Ref: Diseases of Ear, Nose and Throat by PL Dhingra, 4th edition, Page 54, 55.
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Female patient with multiple, way lesions sessile, seen on vulva. Don't bleed on touch?
[ "Condyloma accuminata", "Chancroid", "Molluscum", "Herpes genitalis" ]
A
Condyloma acuminata Caused by HPV 6>11 C/F- Pointed lesions ,Asymptomatic, pink verrucous lesion. Site - In males- Coronal sulcus, frenulum In females- Posterior fourchette Treatment- Topical {Imiquimod> Podophyllotoxin}
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Sequence of putrefaction: WB 07
[ "Hea-brain-uterus-spleen", "Spleen-brain-hea-uterus", "Hea-spleen-brain-uterus", "Hea-brain-spleen-uterus" ]
B
Ans. Spleen-brain-hea-uterus
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In which case cystometric study is indicated -
[ "Neurogenic bladder", "Stress incontinence", "Fistula", "Urge incontinence" ]
A
Cystometric studies are urodynamic studies in which the pressure changes in the bladder is simultaneously measured with bladder filling and during micturition. It helps in accurate assessment of detrusor and sphincter activity especially if a neurogenic abnormality is suspected. Though it is also used in stress inconti...
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Which of these is not a cause of rightward shift of Oxygen – Hemoglobin dissociation curve?
[ "Increased hydrogen ions", "Decreased CO2", "Increased temperature", "Increased BPG" ]
B
Hb-O2 dissociation curve shift to left indicates more affinity of Hb to O2 and thus less delivery of O2 to tissues. Exercise causes increased 2,3 DPG. Shift to left seen in -        Increased pH -        Decreased 2,3 DPG, temperature, PCO2 -        HbF (Fetal) Shift to right seen in -        Decreased pH -        Incr...
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Which following are postulated mechanism by which propofol acts as antiemetic:-
[ "Antidopaminergic activity", "Depressant effect on the chemoreceptor trigger zone", "Decreased release of glutamate and aspect able in the olfactory coex and decreased serotonin", "All of the above" ]
D
causes of antiemetic effect of propofol Antidopaminergic activity Depressant effect on the chemoreceptor trigger zone Decreased release of glutamate and aspect able in the olfactory coex and decreased serotonin
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Third-generation cephalosporins include all of the following EXCEPT :
[ "Ceftizoxime", "Cefoperazone", "Cefoxitin", "Cefixime" ]
C
null
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An infant presents to OPD with a history of vomiting and poor feeding. Musty odor is present in baby's urine. Guthrie test was done and found to be positive. The most likely diagnosis is?
[ "Phenylketonuria", "Alkaptonuria", "Tyrosinemia", "Maple syrup urine disease" ]
A
Clinical Presentation of Phenylketonuria  The affected infant is normal at birth.  Profound intellectual disability develops gradually if the infant remains untreated.  Vomiting, sometimes severe enough to be misdiagnosed as pyloric stenosis.  Older untreated children become hyperactive with autistic behaviors includi...
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In a child ,Self-feeding develops at the age of __________
[ "12 months", "15 months", "18 months", "24 months" ]
C
Emerging patterns of social behaviour from 1-5years of age 15months Indicates some desires or needs by pointing Hugs parents 18months Feeds self Seeks help when in trouble May complain when wet or soiled Kisses parent with pucker 24months Handles spoon well Often tells about immediate experiences Helps to undress Liste...
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Local anaesthesia causing metheaEUR' moglobinemia
[ "Procaine", "Prilocaine", "Etiodicaine", "Ropivacaine" ]
B
Prilocaine
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Chromosome-type in the complete mole is-
[ "XX", "XXV'", "XY", "XO" ]
A
Ans-A i.e., XX Important features of complete and partial molesFeaturesComplete molePartial moleo Embryo/fetuso Absento Presento Hydrophic degeneration of villio Prominent & diffuseo Variable and focalo Trophobalstic hyperplesiao Diffuseo Focalo Uterine sizeo More than date (30-60%)o Less than dateo Theca lutein cysto ...
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Oxidative phosphorylation is inhibited by all EXCEPT:
[ "CO", "Antimycin A", "Malonate", "Thermogenin" ]
D
Uncouplers of ETC: Dinitrophenol, Thermogenin Oxidative phosphorylation means ETC. Inhibitors of ETC are given in table below: Inhibitors of ETC Complex Inhibitors Complex I Rotenone, Phenobarbitone, Amobarbital Piericidin A Complex II Malonate (3C) Carboxin (fungicide) TTFA (Trienoyl Tri Fluoro Acetone) Complex III Ph...
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Best indicator for coronary aery disease ?
[ "HDL", "LDL", "VLDL", "Chlomicron" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e. LDL
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The most common complication of IUCD is:
[ "Ectopic pregnancy", "Bleeding", "Backache", "Cervical stenosis" ]
B
Ans. is b, i.e. BleedingRef: Park 20th/ed, p428Complication of IUCD* M/C complication-Bleeding* IInd M/C complication-Pain* Infection-Doxycycline 200mg/azithromycin 500mg should be given 1 hour before insertion to reduce infection.* Most typical infection associated with Cu T use is actinomyces.* Ectopic pregnancy-It i...
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Which of the following should be avoided initially in hemorrhagic shock: March 2011
[ "Ringer lactate", "Dextrose 5%", "Normal saline", "None of the above" ]
B
Ans. B: Dextrose 5% Hypotonic solutions (e.g. dextrose) are poor volume expanders and should not be used in the treatment of shock unless the deficit is free water loss (e.g. diabetes insipidus) or patients are sodium overloaded (e.g. cirrhosis) Glucose containing solutions should not be used in shock (they exacerbate ...
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MOA of Teduglutide in sho bowel syndrome?
[ "GLP-2 inhibitor", "HT1a inhibitor", "GLP-1 analogs", "C-peptide analogs" ]
A
Ans. A. GLP-2 inhibitorGlucagon-like peptide-2 (GLP-2) - Impoant intestinotrophic growth factor & mediator of intestinal adaptation.FDA approved teduglutide (Gattex--NPS) to treat sho bowel syndrome in adult patients requiring additional nutrition from I.V. parenteral nutrition.Effectively improves fluid absorption.
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Desmopressin can be used for all of the following conditions EXCEPT :
[ "Neurogenic diabetes insipidus", "Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus", "Bed wetting in children", "Bleeding due to hemophilia" ]
B
null
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A 10 month old child presents with two weeks history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
[ "Mycobacterium tuberculosis", "Cryptococcus neoformans", "Listera monocytogenes", "Streptococcus pneumonia" ]
A
Insiduous / gradual onset of fever over a duration of two weeks, with features of raised intracranial tension in the form of vomiting and altered sensoriurn with characteristic basal exudates and hydrocephalus on cranial CT scan are almost characteristic of tuberculous meningitis. Ref: Text Book of Pediatrics By Nelson...
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In which of the following conditions oxygen delivery is least to muscles?
[ "Person inhaling 100 percent oxygen at the top of mout everest", "Marathon runner at sea level", "Person with carbon monoxide poisoning", "None of the above (this option none of the above was also there)" ]
C
In person suffering from carbon monoxide poisoning , perfusion to the muscle is least Ref: guyton and hall textbook of medical physiology 12 edition page number:353,354,355
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Statistical method of calculate death rate among two population with different age groups
[ "Crude death rate", "Standardized death rate", "Case fatality rate", "Age specific death rate" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Standardized death rate Standardization (or adjustment) of rates is used to unable the valid comparison of groups that differ regarding an impoant health determinant (most commonly age). For example, if we want to compare the death rates of two different populations with different age composition, the...
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Malignant neuroleptic syndrome is caused by:March 2009
[ "Antidepressants", "Anxiolytics", "Antipsychotics", "Antiepileptics" ]
C
Ans. C: AntipsychoticsNeuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) refers to the combination of hypehermia, rigidity, and autonomic dysregulation that can occur as a serious complication of the use of antipsychotic drugs.The list of atypical antipsychotic drugs that may cause NMS include olanzapine, risperidone, paliperidone, ...
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Trismus is due to infection by
[ "Staphylococci", "Streptococci", "Diphtheria", "Clostridium Tetani" ]
D
null
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Base of the skull fracture presents with involvement of the petrous temporal bone, which of the following important sign:
[ "Subconjunctive haematoma", "CSF rhinorrhoea", "Raccon eyes", "Battle sign" ]
D
(Battle sign) (595-Baily & Love 24th) (302-B &L 25th)Base of Skull Fractures* Anterior fossa fracture - May open into the frontal or ethmoid air sinuses or run across the cribriform plate.* Presents with sub conjunctival hematoma, anosmia, epistaxis, nasal tip anaesthesia, CSF-rhinorrhea and occasionally carotico-caver...
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Purest water in nature is
[ "Rain water", "River water", "Deep well", "Impounding reservoirs" ]
A
Rain : Is the prime source of all water and is the ‘purest form of water in nature.’ Chemically, it is very soft water : contains traces (0.0005%) of solids Gibraltar depends on rain water as a source of supply.
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4-8 experts, discussing a given problem in front of audience -
[ "Symposium", "Panel discussion", "Workshop", "Group Discussion" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Panel Discussion Panel discussiono It is a two way communication.o 4-8 persons who are qualified to talk about a topic and discuss a given problem in front of a large group or audience.o The panel comprises a chairman.o The chairman opens the meeting, welcomes the group and introduces the panel speake...
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Regular drinking of which of the following can help prevent Urinary Tract infection (UTI)
[ "Grape juice", "Orange juice", "Cranberry juice", "Raspberry juice" ]
C
Cranberry juice Mechanism of prevention of UTI: Proanthocyanidis in cranberry juice prevent bacterial fimbriae from attaching to wall of Urinary Bladder and urinary tract Ref: How cranberry juice can prevent Urinary tract Infections, Science daily, July 21,2008)
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A 20-year-old 70kg man is put on fast perioperatively. 100gm of glucose is given per day as 5% dextrose solution. This is to
[ "Meet daily calorie requirement", "Meet daily fluid requirement", "Sustain cerebral energy metabolism", "Sustain anabolic status" ]
C
During starvation, the body is faced with an obligate need to generate glucose to sustain cerebral energy metabolism (100 g of glucose per day). This is achieved in the first 24 hours by mobilising glycogen stores and thereafter by hepatic gluconeogenesis from amino acids, glycerol and lactate. This eventually leads to...
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The minimum dosage of Candesartan to begin with
[ "2 mg", "40 mg", "20 mg", "30 mg" ]
A
(A) 2 mg # Candesartan: It has the highest affinity for the AT 1 receptor & produces largely unsurmountable antagonism, probably due to slow dissociation from the receptors or receptor desensitization.> It is indicated i both Hypertension & CHF.> Hypertension: 2-32 mg; CHF: 4-32 mg
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The time interval between the primary and secondary case is :
[ "Serial interval", "Generation time", "Median Incubation period", "Secondary attack rate" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e. Serial interval Serial intervalThe gap in time between the onset of the primary case and the secondary case is called the serial interval.Generation time is the interval of time between receipt of infection by a host and maximal infectivity of that host.Median incubation periodis the time required for ...
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Which of the following drug is used to prevent acute mountain sickness?
[ "Acetazolamide", "Dexamethasone", "Diltiazem", "Digoxin" ]
A
Ans. A. AcetazolamideAcetazolamide is effective in preventing acute mountain sickness (AMS), high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE), and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).Mechanism in above pathology:* Counteracts the respiratory alkalosis which occurs during ascent to altitude* Facilitates the excretion of bicarbonate...
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A women consumes several tablets of amitryptiline leading to poisoning. All of the following can be done except
[ "Sodium bicarbonate infusion", "Gastric lavage", "Diazepam to control seizure", "Atropine as antidote" ]
D
D i.e. Atropine as antidote
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Phocomelia is caused by ingestion of ------ during pregnancy:
[ "Steroids", "Tetracycline", "Thalidomide", "Barbiturates" ]
C
Ans: cRef: Harrison, 15th ed, p. 1038
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The light rays come to focus in front of the retina because of the increased length of the eyeball in
[ "Myopia", "Hypermetropia", "Astigmatism", "Presbyopia" ]
A
(A) Myopia > In myopia, the axial length of the eyeball is increased while in hypermetropia, the axial length of the eyeball is decreased.
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False about Japanese encephalitis:
[ "Pigs are amplifier hosts", "Culicine mosquitoes are vectors", "Man to Man transmission", "Case fatality rate is about 20-40%" ]
C
No Man to Man transmission.
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World anti-tobacco day is celebrated on?
[ "31st May", "5thJune", "12th July", "24th November" ]
A
ANSWE R: (A) 31st MayREF: APPENDIX-70 below "HEALTH RELATED DAYS" APPENDIX - 70Health Related Days:World leprosy day30 JanuaryWorld cancer day4th FebruaryWorld disabled day15th MarchWorld TB day24th MarchWorld Health day7th AprilWorld Malaria day25th AprilRed cross day8th MayWorld no tobacco day31st MayAnti Filaria day...
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Early loss of bladder control is seen in
[ "Conus medullaris", "Cauda equina", "Gullain bane syndrome", "Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Conus medullaris Loss of bladder control is an early and marked feature of conus medullaris.
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Christmas tree appearance seen in:
[ "Myotonic dystrophy", "Trauma", "Chalcosis", "Diabetes" ]
A
About 90% of patients with myotonic dystrophy develop fine iridescent coical opacities in the third decade, sometimes resembling Christmas tree cataract.
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Not a part of National Screening Programmes?
[ "Diabetes mellitus", "Carcinoma cervix", "Refractive errors", "Dental caries" ]
D
Diabetes mellitus: Under ‘National programme for Prevention and Control of Diabetes, Cardiovascular diseases and Stroke’, screening is done by Urine for glucose (2 hours after a meal), Fasting blood sugar or random blood sugar (confirmatory testing is done by Standard Oral Glucose Test – 2hour value after 75 grams gluc...
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Why is clopidogrel preferred over ticlopidine?
[ "Lower incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia", "Lower incidence of dyslipidemia", "Lower incidence of hyperglycemia", "Lower incidence of postural hypotention" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Lower incidence of neutropenia and thrombocytopenia Clopidogrel* This newer congener of ticlopidine has similar mechanism of action, ability to inhibit platelet function and therapeutic efficacy, but appears to be safer and better tolerated (CLASSICS study).* Clopidogrel is safer than ticlopidine as i...
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A 40 year old female presents with swelling in the neck. O/E it is a 2x2 cm nodule on the right lobe of thyroid. No palpable cervical nodes. FNAC shows features of papillary carcinoma. Treatment of choice
[ "Total thyroidectomy", "Right hemithyroidectomy", "Hartley-Dunhill operation", "Subtotal thyroidectomy" ]
A
Answer: a) Total thyroidectomy (SABISTON 19TH ED, P-908)PAPILLARY CARCINOMA (80%)Most common type of thyroid carcinomaMore common in womenMostly in the age group 25 - 50Mutations in RET or BRAF geneAssociated with previous exposure to ionizing radiationHistologyNuclei: optically clear or empty appearance - groundglass ...
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Haemorrhagic cystitis is caused by
[ "Cyclophosphamide", "Busulphan", "Prednisolone", "Melphalan" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Cyclophosphamide Hemorrhagic cystic is most commonly associated with cyclophosphamide (seen in 5-10 % of patients).In Harrison drugs causing hemorrhagic cystitis have been listed and this also includes Busulphan.Still, I prefer cyclophosphamide as the answer because none of the pharmacology books (Thi...
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Preferred fluoroquinolone against m. leprae is -
[ "Ofloxacin", "Pefloxacin", "Ciprofloxacin", "Moxifloxacin" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Ofloxacin Drugs acting on M. leprae* Established agents used to treat leprosy include dapsone (50-100 mg/d), clofazimine (50-100 mg/d, 100 mg three times weekly, or 300 mg monthly), and rifampin (600 mg daily or monthly. Of these drugs, only rifampin is bactericidal.* The sulfones (folate antagonists)...
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Serological diagnosis is made in -a) Actinomycosis b) T.B.c) Syphilisd) Gonorrhoeae) Q fever
[ "abd", "acd", "cde", "ade" ]
C
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Denominator in general feility rate is ?
[ "All women between 15-45 year age", "All married women between 15-45 year age", "Total number of live bihs", "Total number of all bihs" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., All women between 15-45 yr age
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The gingival enlargements in leukemia mainly results from
[ "as an inflammatory reaction to plaque", "Leukemic cellular infiltration of gingiva", "Hormonal disturbances", "Developmental in origin" ]
B
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The neuromuscular transmitter released at neuromuscular junction is:
[ "Dopamine", "Epinephrine", "Nor epinephrine", "Acetylcholine" ]
D
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Most common cause of acute RVF aEUR'
[ "Massive pulmonary embolism", "Tricuspid stenosis", "Pulmonary stenosis", "Tricuspid regurgitation" ]
A
Massive pulmonary embolism Acute right ventricular failure is usually caused by acute cor pulmonales. Most common cause of acute cor pulmonale is pulmonary embolism. M.C. cause of chronic cor pulmonale is pulmonary embolism Causes of acute right hea failure Pulmonary embolism (M.C.) Acute respiratory failure (especiall...
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Five cusps are present in:
[ "Maxillary first molar only", "Mandibular first molar only", "Maxillary and mandibular first molar", "Maxillary and Mandibular second molar" ]
C
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Sublingual nitroglycerin for treatment of acute chest pain can cause -
[ "Hypertension", "Headache", "Bradycardia", "Sexual dysfunction" ]
B
Ans. is 'b' i.e., Headache o Due to vasodilatation there may be tachycardia, palpitation, flushing, headache, dizziness and fainting may occur.Uses of nitratesAngina pectorisMICHF and acute LVF - nitroglycerine i.v. can be used - Act by decreasing preload (LV filling pressure).Biliary colic and esophageal spasm (achala...
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Which anti-epileptic is not contraindicated during pregnancy?
[ "Ethosuxmide", "Carbamazepine", "Phenytoin", "Valproate" ]
B
Carbamazepine REF: The treatment of epilepsy Simon D. Shorvon - Page 279 "Carbamazepine is the antiepileptic of choice during pregnancy" The latest data from Jentink et al (BMJ 2010;341:c6581) are drawn from the EUROCAT Antiepileptic Study Database and show that carbamazapine was associated with a raised incidence of s...
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Earliest sign in X-ray in TB spine-
[ "Paravertebral shadow", "Narrowing of disc space", "Gibbus", "None of the above" ]
B
Ans- B Narrowing of disc space First clinical sign of TB Spine = Paraspinal muscle spasm First clinical sign of Pott paraplegia = Ankle Clonus > Extensor Plantar > Spasticity First X-ray Sign of Pott spine = Reduction of disc space End result of Pott spine = bony ankylosis Loss of Spinal curvature is a non specific X-r...
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An 8-month-old girl suddenly developed a high fever (103degF). Her pediatrician examined her and found no signs of upper respiratory tract infection, meningitis, or encephalitis. Two days later, the girl's fever reached 105degF and she suffered a febrile seizure. By the time the child was brought to the pediatrician's ...
[ "Erythema infectiosum caused by parvovirus B19", "Hand-foot-and-mouth disease caused by Coxsackievirus A", "Measles caused by Morbillivirus", "Roseola infantum caused by human herpes virus 6" ]
D
Roseola infantum caused by human herpes virus 6 (d) leads to seizures in 15% of symptomatic infants. In healthy infants, the infection is asymptomatic or follows the course described in the vignette. In immunocompromised children, the abrupt onset includes CNS and other organ system involvement. Following infection, th...
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Which of the following is not a feature of right middle cerebral artery territory infarct -
[ "Aphasia", "Hemiparesis", "Facial weakenss", "Dysarthria" ]
A
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A 35 year old woman suffers severe chest trauma. She is unconscious and her blood pressure is substantially decreased. She has sustained a tear in one of the pulmonary veins at the point at which the vein enters the hea. Into which of the following spaces is the patient hemorrhaging?
[ "Between the epicardium and the parietal pericardium", "Between the parietal pericardium and the fibrous pericardium", "Between the fibrous pericardium and the parietal pleura", "Between the myocardium and the epicardium" ]
A
The pericardial space is located between the epicardium (also known as the visceral pericardium) and the parietal pericardium. A tear of a blood vessel immediately outside of the hea will cause bleeding into the pericardial space. This accumulation of blood in the pericardial space causes increased pressure on the hea,...
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Epiplocele contains:
[ "Omentum", "Ileum", "Caecum", "Appendix" ]
A
Epiplocele: it is a hernia formed by protrusion of omeuntum. Enterocele: a hernia, the contents of which are both intestine and omentum. Amyand's hernia: The presence of vermiform appendix, whether inflamed or not, inside a hernia sac. Ref: A manual of surgery By Sir Astley Cooper, Joseph Henry Green, 3rd Edition, Page...
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Length of umbilical cord is?
[ "40-50 cms", "60- 120 cms", "30-100 cms", "25-40 cms" ]
C
ANSWER: (C) 30-100 cmsREF: Dutta 6th ed p. 40The normal length of umblical cord is around 50cms with usual variation between 30-100 cms
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What is the dose of zinc in diarrhea in a one year old child?
[ "10 mg/day for 2 weeks", "10mg/day for 4 weeks", "10mg/day for 6 weeks", "20 mg/day for 2 weeks" ]
D
The dose for treatment of zinc deficiency is 10mg/day for 14 days for infant 2-6 months of age and 20mg/day for 14 days for older than 6 months.(Refer: Nelson's Textbook of Pediatrics, SAE, 1st edition, pg no. 1872 - 1873)
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Predisposing factor for carcinoma vulva is all Except
[ "Smoking", "HPV", "Fibroepithelial polyp", "Leukoplakia" ]
C
The etiologic role of ceain viruses in carcinogenesis, paicularly high-risk HPV types 16 and 18, in these sites is well documented. Mention has already been made about the preceding stage of vulval epithelial disorders, paicularly squamous hyperplasia, in the development of these lesions. Ref: HARSH MOHAN TEXTBOOK OF P...
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The given histological specimen is
[ "Urethra", "Vermiform appendix", "Vas deferens", "Stenson's duct" ]
B
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Superficial thrombophlebitis is seen in -
[ "Trousseau's syndrome", "Burger's disease", "Raynaud's disease", "Kawasaki syndrome" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., Trousseau's syndrome * Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis is known as Trousseau's syndrome.Trousseau's Syndrome* It is characterized by recurrent episodes of thrombophlebitis in superficial veins which changes locations over time (thrombophlebitis migrans or migratory thrombophlebitis).* The clot ...
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Specific marker for GIST is?
[ "CD 117", "CD 34", "CD 23", "S-100" ]
A
Ans. is 'a' i.e., CD 117
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Handedness develops at -
[ "12 months", "18 months", "24 months", "36 months" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i.e., 36 months o Handedness is usually established by the 3rd year.
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The major clinical use of nimodipine is in ?
[ "Hypeension", "Angina pectoris", "Subarachnoid haemorrhage", "Raynaud's phenomenon" ]
C
Ans. is 'c' i.e., Subarachnoid haemorrhage Nimodipine selectively relaxes cerebral vasculature, approved for prevention and treatment of neurological deficit due to cerebral vasospasm following subarachnoid haemorrhage or ruptured congenital intracranial aneurism.
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What is the best method of informing the rural population about Oral rehydration technique: March 2013 (d, f)
[ "Chalk and talk/Lecture", "Demonstrations", "Role play", "Flash cards" ]
B
Ans. B i.e. Demonstrations Demonstration involves showing by reason or proof explaining or making clear by use of examples or experiments. Put more simply, demonstration means to clearly show
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A 50 yr old male with history of chronic smoking and alcohol intake presents with a lesion (shown in pic) in the oral cavity. What is the most probable diagnosis?
[ "Ranula", "Erythroplakia", "Carcinoma tongue", "Cancrum oris" ]
C
Exophytic SCC right lateral margin of tongue. Most common site of Oral cavity malignancy.
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Heller and Paul double oxalate is also known as:
[ "Sodium citrate", "Sodium oxalate", "Ethylene diamine tetra acetate (EDTA)", "Ammonium potassium oxalate" ]
D
Heller and Paul double oxalate is a combination of ammonium and potassium oxalate. It is an anticoagulant that is used commonly for hematological analyses. It does not cause shrinkage or enlargement of red blood cells. Ammonium oxalate cannot be used when test for urea are carried out. Ref: Diagnosis of Hemophilia and ...
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To prevent exercise induced bronchial asthma drug used is -
[ "Sodium chromoglycate", "Ipratropium bromide", "Terbutaline", "Epinephrine" ]
A
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Not used for treatment and/or prophylaxis of seasonal influenza -
[ "Amantidine", "Rimantidine", "Oseltamivir", "Acyclovir" ]
D
Ans. is 'd' i e., Acycloviro Two classes of antiviral drugs are available for the treatment and prevention of influenzai) Neuraminidase inhibitors: Zanamivir, Oseltamivir, peramivirii) Adamantanes: Amantidine, rimantidine
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